Fuel To The Fire Of Acclimatization

I personally believe that whether or not it takes 10 days for full acclimitization, it's still better than nothing to let a fish sit in a bag for 10 minutes. Because the temperature will gradually go up in the span of 10 minutes rather than instantly go up if he is dropped into the fish tank. Just my opinion. Makes sense to me at least, if not anyone else. :lol:
But the point being put forward is, if it takes 10 days to acclimatise, then the difference between 10 mins in the bag, and 0 is not that great. However, 10 minutes in ammonia filled water is almost certainly going to have some detrimental effect on the fish.


Whos to say the bag is filled with ammonia andy. It's not if you just got it from the local fish store. And yeah 10 minutes makes a huge difference, I can see it in my fish that I let out immediately compared to those who I havent. It makes a massive difference actually. Think of it this way, would you want to go from temperatures of 40 degrees to 90 instantly or would you rather have the temperature increase over 10 minutes. You'd probably get fairly sick from a change like that instantly. I know I'd throw up. For a fish it would be similar IMO. and 10 minutes for temperature acclimation, plus 30 minutes for water quality acclimation makes a huge difference.

in many instances thought the water in the bag can already be very similar to that in the tank. so once again it would come down to personal preference, location, temp etc etc etc many instances could influence the ability of a fish to simply be put straight in a tank or given a little time to for the bag water to change a little.

also, there is usually quite a high build up of ammonia in the bag die to the fish stressing and pooping in the bag. next time you get a new fish, test the water in the bag. it doesnt take long to build up
 
I only find the two step guy distracting. I can't see the armband that well on the lap top. As far as I was concerned he might have been an annoying band leader.

I am not going to do all the research for you, andywg. This company researches. If you really need indepth documentation then get it. But if not then you can be relieved of the responsibility of dismissing the premise and addressing the issues. A biologist says temp acclimation takes time. You dismissed him but I didn't see that you effectively refuted him.

I looked it up. There is a difference between acclimatis/zation and acclimating; it said in two different places. You can google it. As I remember Acclimatis/zation is a change in a single element affecting an organism that may change back. Acclimate is a change in a complex of elements.

Sorry I am getting on the short end of the time curve and my active day curve.
 
im 100% sure there is a perfectly good explanation for that but it reads like you have a betta in a marine tank :) hehe
That is because I do :nod:

OMG!!!!!! really?? wow :) i never realised...lol i ony ask out of sheer curiosity, but how?? i had no idea after hearing everyone say how bettas dont like salt etc etc
including andywg. Perhaps you are testing the fish out of his natural environment? Baiting his public, perhaps?
 
I am not going to do all the research for you, andywg. This company researches. If you really need indepth documentation then get it.

Oh no no no no!


You bring the claim, you bring the evidence to support it. Why should I have to find evidence to prove a claim originally typed by you? :) That is not how scientific debates work.

You bring the new claim that goes against what is believed by the majority, you bring the evidence.

But if not then you can be relieved of the responsibility of dismissing the premise and addressing the issues. A biologist says temp acclimation takes time. You dismissed him but I didn't see that you effectively refuted him.

I don't doubt it takes time, but how long? Also, where exactly did I say that temperature acclimatisation takes no time?

No one has provided any sort of evidence based link for showing how long it takes. I have searched, but as I am not an a research institute I do not have access to published papers. I know bignose is, and he doesn't believe the 10 day time scale either.

You seem extremely confident of your original post, so why don't you find evidence to back up your original claim, rather than demanding I do it?

I looked it up. There is a difference between accliamis/zation and acclimating; it said in two different places. You can google it. As I remember Acclitimas/zation is a change in a single element affecting an organism that may change back. Acclimate is a change in a complex of elements.

Strange, every thing I have googled (such as dictionaries) states that to acclimatise is to acclimate.

Acclimate was a verb that fell out of use in Britain between the 18th and 19th century when acclimatize replaced it. At some point between the 19th and 20th century the British changed ize spellings to ise and hence the three interchangeable verbs.

All of the research paper abstracts I can find use a slash between them and then proceed to use only one of them indicating (to me at least) that the terms are interchangable.

Rather than just telling you to google it I will provide links:

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/acclimatising

http://separatedbyacommonlanguage.blogspot...ze-another.html


<a href="http://www.wordwebonline.com/en/ACCLIMATE" target="_blank">http://www.wordwebonline.com/en/ACCLIMATE
</a>


<a href="http://www.allwords.com/word-acclimatise.html" target="_blank">http://www.allwords.com/word-acclimatise.html
</a>


<a href="http://sorabji.com/d/dictionary/Acclimate/" target="_blank">http://sorabji.com/d/dictionary/Acclimate/
</a>

So it actually appears that acclimate, acclimatise and acclimatize are all synonyms. I have found 5 sources indicating this (and even provided links, rather than keeping my sources mysterious).

Edit--

An extra couple are here. Firstly from a discussion of the use of the words acclimate, acclimatise, adapt etc.

In the following I will use the term ACCLIMATIZATION, but the content applies equally to ACCLIMATION.

http://www.as.ua.edu/ant/bindon/ant475/Readings/r3.pdf

And then Putnam's word book of synonyms lists acclimate and acclimatize as synonyms.

http://www.fullbooks.com/Putnam-s-Word-Bookx25021.html

OMG!!!!!! really?? wow :) i never realised...lol i ony ask out of sheer curiosity, but how?? i had no idea after hearing everyone say how bettas dont like salt etc etc
including andywg. Perhaps you are testing the fish out of his natural environment? Baiting his public, perhaps?

Remember that a common name can refer to more than one fish (think angelfish and butterflyfish as well). ;)

I was, of course, referring to my (Calloplesiops altivelis).
 
the swastika was an emblem that was flown as a flag, I am not sure it was officially the flag of Germany at any point though.

Your wiki skills let you down ;)

From Wiki's German Flag entry I have found that the swastika was flown alongside the Weimar republic flag (below) between 1933 and 1935.

100px-National_flag_of_Germany_1933-1935.svg.png


In 1935 the Weimar Republic flag was banned and from 1935 and 1945 the Swastika (as shown below) was flown solely as the flag of the Third Reich (the Nazi "empire").

180px-Flag_of_Germany_1933.svg.png


My Wiki skills don't let me down, thats like arguing that the Hammer and Sickle on a red back ground was the flag of the Ukraine, or the Union Flag is the flag of Wales. The Swastika was flown as the flag of the Third Reich. Obviously Germany was the driving force behind the Third Reich so it is easily argued that the Swastika was the flag of Germany. Plus I did say I was unsure of if it was flown as the national flag of Germany, implying, you know, I wasn't sure.


Edit> now looking at the page you linked, it clearly lists it as a flag of Germany, but on the side bar lists as a political flag jointly with the previous flag then solely. What confuses me is- was it a national flag or a political flag? Of course it was the flag of NSDAP before they came to power, would you consider this akin to Labour banning the Union Flag in the UK and only allowing the red rose to be used?
 
My Wiki skills don't let me down, thats like arguing that the Hammer and Sickle on a red back ground was the flag of the Ukraine,

If whoever controlled Ulraine banned any other flag from representing Ukraine at that time and it wasn't used to represent any other areas, then the hammer and sickle would become the flag of ukraine.

or the Union Flag is the flag of Wales

See above but replace Ukraine with Wales

The Swastika was flown as the flag of the Third Reich. Obviously Germany was the driving force behind the Third Reich so it is easily argued that the Swastika was the flag of Germany.

Especially as in 1935 the Nazis only controlled Germany, banned the German flag and used the Swastika. I'd say that made it the flag of Germany at that time.

Plus I did say I was unsure of if it was flown as the national flag of Germany, implying, you know, I wasn't sure.

Indeed, and I had a light hearted stab (hence the emoticon) poitning out you had looked up so much on wiki, but had not simply put "german flag" into the search, which brought up all my info posted. :)

Of course it was the flag of NSDAP before they came to power, would you consider this akin to Labour banning the Union Flag in the UK and only allowing the red rose to be used?

If the Labour party ruled the UK, banned the union flag and for a period the only flag to represent the UK was the red rose, then I daresay I would have to consider the red rose the flag of the United Kingdom for the period it was the only flag to represent the United Kingdom.

It was originally a political flag that then became the flag of a country and then an empire.
 
We must agree to differ on this as we obviously have two different points of view. I didn't put 'german flag' into the wiki search as it was more of a throwaway comment than an attempt at reporting fact, from reading the article it doesn't make it clear to me that it was the national flag of germany-
The Nazis replaced virtually all German governmental flags with designs based featuring the swastika, the symbol on their party flag and the symbol of their movement. The new flag featured the same colours as the Imperial flag, but it was arranged as a red flag with a white disk in the centre containing a black swastika. The old black-white-red flag was then banned by the Nazis as "reactionary"

This suggests to me that although virtually every national flag was removed and physically replaced with the Swastika it may not have actually been officially adopted as the German national flag. It is obviously synominous with Germany at that time though.

However this page makes it clear that the Swastika was adopted as the national flag of Germany.
 
Most of the above relates to marine fish, for which very few people advocate the "just chuck them in" method due to the additional problem of osmotic shock on top of any other woes.
=======================================

Actaully andy, you read what you wanted to. Go back and read the very last part that says floating the bag for 30 minutes for koi, bass and trout, which the last time I checked are fresh water fish, greatly reduces the mortality rate.
 
Most of the above relates to marine fish, for which very few people advocate the "just chuck them in" method due to the additional problem of osmotic shock on top of any other woes.
=======================================

Actaully andy, you read what you wanted to. Go back and read the very last part that says floating the bag for 30 minutes for koi, bass and trout, which the last time I checked are fresh water fish, greatly reduces the mortality rate.
Last time I checked "most" means the majority, not all, nor only. Perhaps you should read more into the dictionary links I posted :D
 
Actually I think you argue just to argue. Your constantly proven wrong yet you never give up. Because the final statement says in fact that, the freshwater koi, trout, and bass showed dramaticly less losses when acclimated over 30 minutes. Thats is everything in terms of this argument. THat reputes what you are saying, yet you brush it off by saying, well most of the argument is about saltwater. The one part about fresh proves you wrong and you ignore it, how convenient.
 
Actually I think you argue just to argue. Your constantly proven wrong yet you never give up. Because the final statement says in fact that, the freshwater koi, trout, and bass showed dramaticly less losses when acclimated over 30 minutes. Thats is everything in terms of this argument. THat reputes what you are saying, yet you brush it off by saying, well most of the argument is about saltwater. The one part about fresh proves you wrong and you ignore it, how convenient.
And that part is one person's experience.

Other people above have stated their fish do better with just being chucked in and have provided some reasoning why. There is absolutely nowhere near a conclusion on this, to think otherwise is foolish. If you looked at it with a critical eye you would respond:

What was the temperature difference between the bag and the water they are released into?

How can they be sure that it was thermic shock? Was there an autopsy? Where are the Autopsy results?

How can the poster be so sure it was purely the shipping that caused the deaths? What were the controls applied to the experiment?


You see, without any details about how the experiement was conducted (to allow repeatability, and thus the ability to predict future events) then it is not a whole lot better than anecdotal experience.

Also, you appear to claim above that the 30 minutes to do with "large" temperature differences proves that we should always acclimate for temperature for 30 minutes. Did you not read the very next sentence?

My recommendation is that if the fish have been bagged for two or more hours, it is better to release them immediately than to subject the fish to the "bad" water in the bag for an additional half-hour.

The very person who did the experiments you are using to support 30 minutes acclimatisation does not come to the same conclusion as you. I would say that I am far from being proven wrong here. First of all, where have I stated what I feel is the best thing to do here? I think you will find I have not offered a view, I am merely replying to those put forwards by others. Hopefully, enough different views will be put forwards with supporting evidence that can be collectively criticised until we have a set of results which seem the best/most likely.

Edit---

And in particular response to

The one part about fresh proves you wrong and you ignore it, how convenient

I actually stated

The last two links in your post, jollysue, have no references assigned to them. We cannot ascertain where any of their information is coming from and how accurate/in date it is.

The last part of the information you were referring to was the second of the links I was referring to above.
 
Fascinating topic.

Sudden changes in the mineral content of water seems more dangerous than rapid pH or temp fluctuations, in my experience.

[my attempt to keep on topic]
 
How can they be sure that it was thermic shock? Was there an autopsy? Where are the Autopsy results?




Lol how could you ascertain that a fish died from thermic shock by doing an autopsy?? Unless you are a trained veternarian, there would be no way to tell from an autopsy. It's not like cysts form or organs explode due to a change in temperature, it's all part of the nervous system which a normal person can't examine and make a true conclusion.
 
Actually I think you argue just to argue. Your constantly proven wrong yet you never give up. Because the final statement says in fact that, the freshwater koi, trout, and bass showed dramaticly less losses when acclimated over 30 minutes. Thats is everything in terms of this argument. THat reputes what you are saying, yet you brush it off by saying, well most of the argument is about saltwater. The one part about fresh proves you wrong and you ignore it, how convenient.

Oy! You have to be very careful using that word, since in a scientific context that word takes on a much stronger definition that its common usage. And, considering the context here, regarding this acclimatization, scientifically nothing has been proven whatsoever. This can be seen by that laundry list of open questions that andy just asked just a few posts ago.

Finally, I just wanted to make sure that everyone reading this thread picked up on an important point here, which is critical evaluation of the sources. Just because someone puts up a webpage and writes a bunch of statements, doesn't mean it is true. Even if several hundred or several thousand people write the same thing on their own individual webpages, doesn't mean it is true. Science is not a democracy; the theory that has the most papers written about it doesn't make it right.

Let me give a directly fish-related example: For a very long time, people thought that the Nitrobacter bacteria was the primary nitrite oxidizer in aquariums. After all, it was the bacteria that was identified in waste water plants that indeed does the majority of the nitrite oxidation. Nitrobacter could be found listed in many, many books -- books written for the beginning aquarist, advanced fishkeepers, even trade journals and scientific papers. It can still be found published in many books today. However, most home aquaria have very, very few Nitrobacter in them, instead they usually have Nitrospira. Dr. Tim Hovanec discovered this in the 1990's, using more advanced DNA sampling techniques.

Just because all the old literature, again hundreds maybe even thousands of different sources, listed the wrong name doesn't mean that the old literature is right. I fear that if we were having this argument 10 years ago, you might have pulled book after book after article that said Nitrobacter to "prove" me wrong. But, lots of copies that say the same wrong thing doesn't make it so. When the actual work was done, looking at the DNA of actual aquarium DNA, it was found that is was not Nitrobacter, despite what all the old books said.

(I can take this "just because it was printed a lot of times, doesn't make it so" argument to its extremes to prove a point. In the 1948 U.S. Presidential Election a lot of newspapers printed "Dewey Defeats Truman," but that didn't make Dewey President. A better example is probably all the Internet myths that I am sure you have seen. A quick perusal of snopes.com shows just how many of them are complete hogwash.)

Look, mistakes happen, very often with the best of intentions. Someone quite some time ago probably thought that a very long acclimatization period was best. And, it makes sense, no? But, gut instinct, and "sense" is not science. Just because someone thinks that it is best for the fish, doesn't make it so. Gut instinct and emotion and feelings are great tools the human body and mind has, but they aren't science. One of the hardest tasks of learning science is to learn to ignore your instinct until it can be retrained from a science point of view. And, a good scientist never 100% trusts his instinct, because he learns that instinct can lead him down the wrong paths. Now, a good scientist doesn't ignore his instinct, either. Because instinct can lead to some great insights that a straight on analysis may never have yielded. But, a scientist never trusts in instinct alone, because instinct isn't science.

So, someone, trying to do right by the fish, their instinct tells them that it takes a long time to acclimatize, and that gets printed. And, then it gets printed over and over and over, every publisher and editor and author who review that new article or book to be printed said "yeah, that seems right" and again are all trying to do right by the fish. But, once again, instinct isn't science. And now that these facts are being looked at more closely, it is turning out that difference in hardness and mineral levels seems to be the really important water stat for safe acclimatization. Just because many, many books and these days webpages have printed the same statement, does not make it true.

Could this newer research about hardness and mineral levels being more important end up being wrong? Absolutely. But, today, the evidence for hardness is stronger than the evidence for pH and temperature, so that is the current theory. Since the evidence is strongest for hardness, that becomes the newest theory. If, and only if, stronger evidence for something else comes along, then that something else will become the newest theory. No good scientist will hold on the the old theory, just because it was their favorite, or just because it was printed in a lot of different places. If the new theory makes predictions better, then the old theory is discarded. It is as simple as that.
 
Lol how could you ascertain that a fish died from thermic shock by doing an autopsy?? Unless you are a trained veternarian, there would be no way to tell from an autopsy. It's not like cysts form or organs explode due to a change in temperature, it's all part of the nervous system which a normal person can't examine and make a true conclusion.


Actually, that is exactly andy's point. You can't claim that thermal (or pH or harndess or anything else) shock was involved unless you can identify it as such. That's why studies conducted by professionals carry so much more weight than anecdotal stories of people on this forum. That's why controls and strict experimental methods are needed to identify what really happened, not just the same statements written in many different places all over the Internet.
 

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